f(0)=0,f'(0)=2,则lim(x~0)f(1—cosx)/x^2=?.这是那的知识

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f(0)=0,f'(0)=2,则lim(x~0)f(1—cosx)/x^2=?.这是那的知识
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f(0)=0,f'(0)=2,则lim(x~0)f(1—cosx)/x^2=?.这是那的知识
f(0)=0,f'(0)=2,则lim(x~0)f(1—cosx)/x^2=?.
这是那的知识

f(0)=0,f'(0)=2,则lim(x~0)f(1—cosx)/x^2=?.这是那的知识
看图

答案是正无穷大,很显然考的是洛比达法则,当x~0时1-cosx=x,根据洛必达法则,分子分母求导得原式=1/x,f(0)=0则原式=正无穷大。大一前半学期高数课本上有,不要啥事都百度,多看看书比啥都强

?????什么乱七八糟的......